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January 9, 2010 / Nick

60 Questions on the Godhead with Bible Answers, a timeless classic


This is a classic which I’ve just had a re-read of.  It’s one of the first tracts I ever saw on the Oneness of God, it is powerful but simple, and still effective at communicating the truth of the Oneness of God.  What makes this tract so powerful is the quantity of scriptural evidence provided.  This is not opinion, it is just the word and it sends the reader to look into their own bible for themselves.  Whether you agree with the conclusion or not you’d have to say that anything that makes you search out the scriptures for yourself is a good thing.

Here they are in full (source: UPCI.org), or a PDF download version if you like.

1.  Is the word trinity in the Bible? No.

2.  Does the Bible say that there are three persons in the Godhead? No.

3.  Does the Bible speak of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost? Yes.

4.  Do these titles as used in Matthew 28:19 mean that there are three separate and distinct persons in the Godhead? No, they refer to three offices, roles, or relationship to humanity.

5.  Does the Bible use the word three in reference to God? Only one verse in the entire Bible does so-I John 5:7. It speaks of the Father, the Word (instead of Son), and the Holy Ghost, and it concludes by saying, “These three are one.”

6.  Does the Bible use the word one in reference to God? Yes, many times. For example, see Zechariah 14:9; Malachi 2:10; Matthew 23:9; Mark 12:29, 32; John 8:41; 10:30; Romans 3:30; I Corinthians 8:4; Galatians 3:20; I Timothy 2:5; James 2:19.

7.  Can the mystery of the Godhead be understood? Yes. Romans 1:20; Colossians 2:9; I Timothy 3:16.

8.  Has the Christian only one Heavenly Father? Yes. Matthew 23:9.

9.  Then why did Jesus say to Philip, “He that hath seen me hath seen the Father” (John 14:9)? Because Jesus is the express image of God’s person. Hebrews 1:3. The Greek word for personin this verse literally means “substance.”

10.  Does the Bible say that there are two persons in the Godhead? No.

11.  Does the Bible say that all the Godhead is revealed in one person? Yes, in Jesus Christ. II Corinthians 4:4; Colossians 1:19; 2:9; Hebrews 1:3.

12.  Is the mystery of the Deity hidden from some people? Yes. Luke 10:21-22.

13.  Who is the Father? The Father is the one God, particularly as revealed in parental relationship to humanity. Deuteronomy 32:6; Malachi 2:10.

14.  Where was God the Father while Jesus was on earth? The Father was in Christ. John 14:10; II Corinthians 5:19. He was also in heaven, for God is omnipresent.

15.  Did the prophet Isaiah say that Jesus would be the Father? Yes. Isaiah 9:6; 63:16.

16.  When God said, “Let us make man in our image” (Genesis 1:26), was He speaking to another person in the Godhead? No. Isaiah 44:24; Malachi 2:10.

17.  How many of God’s qualities were in Christ? All. Colossians 2:9.

18.  How may we see the God who sent Jesus into the world? By seeing Jesus. John 12:44-45; 14:9.

19.  Does the Bible say that Jesus is the Almighty? Yes. Revelation 1:8

20.  Whom do some designate as the first person in the trinity? God the Father.

21.  Whom do some designate as the last person in the trinity? The Holy Ghost. But Jesus said that He was the first and last. Revelation 1:17-18

22.  How many persons did John see sitting on the throne in heaven? One. Revelation 4:2.

23.  If Jesus is the first and the last, why did God say in Isaiah 44:6 that He was the first and the last? Because Jesus is the God of the Old Testament incarnate.

24.  Did Jesus tell Satan that God alone should be worshipped? Yes. Matthew 4:10

25.  Does the devil believe in more than one God? No. James 2:19.

26.  Does the Bible say that God, who is the Word, was made flesh? Yes John 1:1, 14.

27.  For what purpose was God manifested in the flesh? To save sinners. Hebrews 2:9, 14.

28.  Was Jesus God manifested in the flesh? Yes. I Timothy 3:16.

29.  Could Jesus have been on earth and in heaven at the same time? Yes. John 3:13.

30.  Does the Bible say that there is but one Lord? Yes. Isaiah 45:18; Ephesians 4:5.

31.  Does the Bible say that Christ is the Lord? Yes. Luke 2:11.

32.  Does the Bible say that the Lord is God? Yes. I kings 18:39; Zechariah 14:5; Acts 2:39; Revelation 19:1.

33.  How could the church belong to Jesus (Matthew 16:18) and yet be the church of God (I Corinthians 10:32)? Because Jesus is God in the flesh.

34.  Will God give His glory to another? No. Isaiah 42:8.

35.  Was there a God formed before Jehovah, or will there be one formed after? No. Isaiah 43:10.

36.  What is one thing that God does not know? Another God. Isaiah 44:8.

37.  What is one thing that God Cannot do? Lie. Titus 1:2.

38.  How many Gods should we know? Only one. Hosea 13:4.

39.  How many names has the Lord? One. Zechariah 14:9.

40.  Is it good to think upon the name of the Lord? Yes. Malachi 3:16.

41.  Does the Bible say that God alone treads upon the waves of the sea? Yes. Job 9:8

42.  Why, then, was Jesus able to walk upon the Sea of Galilee (Matthew 14:25)? Because He is God the Creator. Colossians 1:16.

43.  Is God the only one who can forgive sin? Yes. Isiah 43:25; Mark 2:7.

44.  Why, then, could Jesus forgive sin in Mark 2:5-11? Because He is God the Savior.

45.  Is Jesus the true God? Yes. I John 5:20.

46.  If God and the Holy Ghost are two separate persons, which was the Father of Christ? Matthew 1:20 says that the Holy Ghost was the Father, while Romans 15:6, II Corinthians 11:31, and Ephesians 1:3 say that God was the Father. There is no contradiction when we realize that God the Father and the Holy Ghost are one and the same Spirit. Matthew 10:20; Ephesians 4:4; I Corinthians 3:16.

47.  When Paul asked the Lord who He was, what was the answer? “I am Jesus.” Acts 9:5.

48.  When Stephen was dying, did he call God Jesus? Yes. Acts 7:59.

49.  Did Thomas ever call Jesus God? Yes. John 20:28.

50.  How could Jesus be the Savior, when God the Father said in Isaiah 43:11, “Beside me there is no Savior?” Because “God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself.” II Corinthians 5:19.

51.  Does the Bible say that Jesus was God with us? Yes. Matthew 1:23.

52.  Did Jesus ever say, “I and my Father are one?” Yes. John 10:30.

53.  Can it be proved scripturally that Jesus and the Father are one in the same sense that husband and wife are one? No. The Godhead was never compared to the relationship of a husband and wife. Jesus identified Himself with the Father in a way that husband and wife cannot be identified with each other. John 14:9-11.

54.  Does the Bible say that there is only one wise God? Yes. Jude 25.

55.  Does the Bible call the Holy Ghost a second or third person in the Godhead? No. The Holy Ghost is the one Spirit of God, the one God Himself at work in our lives. John 4:24; I Corinthians 3:16-17; 6:19; 12:13.

56.  Can Trinitarians show that three divine persons were present when Jesus was baptized by John? Absolutely not. The one, omnipresent God used three simultaneous manifestations. Only one divine person was present–Jesus Christ the Lord.

57.  Then what were the other two of whom Trinitarians speak? One was a voice from heaven; the other was the Spirit of God in the form of a dove. Matthew 3:16-17.

58.  What did the voice say at Jesus’ baptism? “Thou art my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.” Mark 1:11. As the Son of God, Jesus was the one God incarnate.

59.  Does the Bible say that God shed His blood and that God laid down His life for us? Yes. Acts 20:28; I John 3:16. God was able to do this because He had taken upon Himself a human body.

60.  The Bible says that God is coming back with all his saints (Zechariah 14:5) and also that Jesus is coming back with all his saints (I Thessalonians 3:13). Are two coming back? No. Only one is coming back–our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ. Titus 2:13.

*Taken from the Word Aflame Tract “60 Questions on the Godhead with Bible answers” #6125″

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31 Comments

  1. Alan Higgins / Feb 1 2010 8:30 am

    Quock question. Do you believe that that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit cannot exist at the same time. For exaample if they were in a room, it would be one or another? (I know its a bad analogy for God but hope you know what I mean)

  2. Michael / Feb 1 2010 7:07 pm

    I would like to invite the author of this blog to a scholarly debate on the topic of water baptism and it’s role in salvation. Please contact me if you are willing to test the oneness understanding of baptism in light of the text of scripture via debate.

    you can reach me at
    http://www.onenesspentecostal.net

  3. Alan Higgins / Feb 1 2010 9:54 pm

    If I was not baptised in Jesus name only, am I saved?

  4. Alan Higgins / Feb 2 2010 6:05 pm

    Meant to say ‘For example if they were in a room,would it be one or another?’

    • jesusblogger / Feb 5 2010 7:30 pm

      Alan, your question is asked from the perspective of God being 3 Persons – who can stand side by side.

      God is a Spirit. Jesus said He that hath seen me hath seen the Father. The writer of Hebrews called Jesus the “express image of God”. Jesus was in the Father and the Father in Him. Jesus said He was the comforter. Jesus is the son born and the child given and the Everlasting Father.

      If you want to see Father, Son and Holy Ghost in a room look to Jesus!

      • Alan Higgins / Feb 6 2010 11:23 am

        You said “If you want to see Father, Son and Holy Ghost in a room look to Jesus!”

        But could the Father and the Holy Spirit be in the same room AS WELL AS Jesus opposed to looking at the Father and the Holy Spirit THROUGH Jesus? I am trying to understand your line of thinking

        When Jesus was getting baptised, who was the Father talking to?

        • jesusblogger / Feb 9 2010 10:27 am

          Hi Alan,

          How many God’s are there?

          The Bible said “but we see Jesus”, and I agree with that. The Bible said: “God was manifest in the flesh” (1 Tim 3:16). When the resurrected Lord Jesus appeared in the room Thomas said: “My Lord and my God”. Isaiah said there is no other beside the “Holy One of Israel”.

          There is simply no case for a Holy Three. The Holy One is similtaneously our Father because He created us, the Son who died to redeem us and the Holy Spirit indwelling us and empowering us.

          When Jesus appears He IS the Son in whom dwells all the Fullness of the Godhead bodily (Col 2.9) and we are complete in Him.

          If you are looking to see: God the Father, a 2nd God the Son and a 3rd God the Holy Ghost you have not got One God but you have 3 Gods.

          Notice how the Jews spake of God and the Holy Spirit and yet they still have ONE God. They knew that The Holy Spirit is God in action, not a 2nd God.

          At Jesus’ baptism God spoke to John: “This is my beloved son in whom I am well pleased”.

          • Alan Higgins / Feb 9 2010 11:29 am

            I have never said that there are three Gods. I agree with you when you say that there is only ONE God. I think what throws you is when we say that there are three disctibct ‘persons’. But they are distinct. From what i understand, you believe that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit can not exist at the same time but the father manifests himself at one time, then the Son and then the Holy Spirit. (Correct me if I am wrong)

            Let me make this analogy

            As the Trinitarian doctrine maintains, each of the persons of the Godhead is distinct, yet they are all each, by nature, God.

            With time, for example, the past is distinct from the present, which is distinct from the future. Each is simultaneous, yet they are not three ‘times,’ but one. That is, they all share the same nature: time.

            With space, height is distinct from width, which is distinct from depth, which is distinct from height. Yet, they are not three ‘spaces,’ but one. That is, they all share the same nature: space.

            With matter, solid is not the same as liquid, which is not the same as gas, which is not the same as solid. Yet, they are not three ‘matters,’ but one. That is, they all share the same nature: matter.

            In the same way, Father, Son and Holy Spirit share the same nature but are distinct in their roles

          • jesusblogger / Feb 10 2010 12:34 am

            Shalom Alan,

            You asked:

            “From what i understand, you believe that the Father, Son and Holy Spirit can not exist at the same time but the father manifests himself at one time, then the Son and then the Holy Spirit. (Correct me if I am wrong)”

            Yes Alan, you are wrong in how you understand our beliefs. No Apostolic Pentecostal would ever limit God in such a way. God can be both Father, Son and Holy Ghost at the same time and remain One God who is a Spirit without the need for being 3 distinct Persons. Jesus said he was both in Heaven and on Earth at the same time – yet He remains one Jesus (c.f. John 3:13).

            You also said:

            Let me make this analogy

            As the Trinitarian doctrine maintains, each of the persons of the Godhead is distinct, yet they are all each, by nature, God.

            With time, for example, the past is distinct from the present, which is distinct from the future. Each is simultaneous, yet they are not three ‘times,’ but one. That is, they all share the same nature: time.

            With space, height is distinct from width, which is distinct from depth, which is distinct from height. Yet, they are not three ’spaces,’ but one. That is, they all share the same nature: space.

            With matter, solid is not the same as liquid, which is not the same as gas, which is not the same as solid. Yet, they are not three ‘matters,’ but one. That is, they all share the same nature: matter.

            You also said…

            In the same way, Father, Son and Holy Spirit share the same nature but are distinct in their roles

            Alan, your analogy of time is probably not the best you could have chosen. Time is Past, Present & Future – none of which can exist at the same time. We are always in the Present, looking back to the Past and expecting the Future. This analogy effectively says Father, Son & Holy Ghost can not exist at the same time – which you wrongly accused me of. But, I suspect this is not what you meant to say?

            Your Analogy of space Alan again is flawed. You have described 3 dimensions of space. The truth is that space has more dimensions than height, width and depth i.e. how tall is space, how wide is space and how deep is it? No one knows because Space is so far beyond that. Much more God? Space is such that if you look at the height you end up seeing depth, and if you look at the width you could be looking at the height. Likewise, if you look at the Son you end up seeing the Father, and if you look at the Holy Spirit you see it described as The Spirit of Christ – Jesus said “I in thou, thou in me” etc – a divine “mix up” so to speak.

            Finally, your final analogy Alan could be used to explain how I believe God – i.e. the Oneness Doctrine. You see I believe that there is one God (H2O) who exists as Father (Steam), Son (Ice), Holy Spirit (Water). Each of these are roles God occupies, just as H20 can be Water, Steam, Ice. They can even appear at the same time i.e. Steam from Ice in a pool of Water. But they are all the same H20. Likewise I believe Father, Son and Holy Spirit are the same One God. Father, Son and Holy Spirit are titles and roles of God in relation to mankind. Before there was ever a man, a time, a universe God did not need to be Father, Son or Holy Ghost – He was just God. It is when He created He became a Father, when he needed to Redeem we knew of the Son (prior to which the Son existed as the Logos, or Word/Though of God – not a seperate Person) and before God began to manifest Himself to mankind we would not have known of the Spirit that came upon the Apostles and Prophets.

          • Alan Higgins / Feb 9 2010 11:34 am

            Talking about Jesus baptism, I would like to know was the Father talking to himself?

          • jesusblogger / Feb 10 2010 12:18 am

            Alan, the voice of God said: “This is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased”.

            He was clearly not addressing Himself, neither was He addressing Christ – or he would have said: “You are my beloved Son”.

            He was speaking to John the Baptist, confirming that Jesus was the Messiah that John had been waiting for and preaching about. It was to confirm to John who Jesus was.

          • Alan Higgins / Feb 10 2010 1:49 pm

            C’mon Jesusblogger you are clearly wrong here. Look at the context of the paragraph and the plain reading of the text and it is obvious he was talking about Jesus

            As soon as Jesus was baptized, he (Jesus) went up out of the water. At that moment heaven was opened, and he (Jesus) saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove and lighting on (Jesus) him. And a voice from heaven said, “This is my Son (capital S), whom I love; with him I am well pleased.”

            In plain english reading, you would be streching to say that this was John the Baptist

            So to answer your other comment about my definition of the Trinity,

            “It is the doctrine that God is one being who exists, simultaneously and eternally, as three DISCTINT persons (hence the reason why the Father was able to speak about the Son above): the Father, the Son (incarnate as Jesus), and the Holy Spirit. They are not the same, they have different functionalites, yet they are one God. THEY ARE NOT THREE GODS.”

            But as I have stated many times, just because the word is not in the bible does not mean that the concept or the doctrine is not there just as you cannot show me the word ‘omnipresent’ in the bible.

          • jesusblogger / Feb 10 2010 2:14 pm

            Hi Alan,

            It does not make sense logically, or grammatically for the Father to say to His Son: “This is my beloved Son”. Wouldn’t he not say: “You are my beloved Son”. The only reason the Father would say: “This is My Beloved Son” is if the voice is addressing John the Baptist.

            Interestingly, if we read up a couple of verses what I am saying should become clearer…

            Mat 3:15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer [it to be so] now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
            Mat 3:16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him:
            Mat 3:17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased

            In the above scripture the “he” is John the baptist. This is clearly why the voice says… “This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased”.

            Questions for you: –

            1. Why would The Father say “This is my beloved Son” to the Son? Did the Son not know who He was?

            2. If the Father is speaking to the Son – in your view is this God speaking to Himself?

          • Alan Higgins / Feb 10 2010 2:45 pm

            Exactly, you got to the verses before and the plain reading tells you at that point it was talking about John the baptist and then when it gets to verse 16, it starts with ‘And Jesus’ and then it switches. The ‘And Jesus’ in verse 15 lets you know the ‘him’ is John the baptise because it says ‘And he suffered him’ so common sense tells you that it is not the same person

            You see a sililar thing in matthew 17:5-6

            5While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him. 6And when the disciples heard it, they fell on their face, and were sore afraid.

            Note the Father told the disciples to hear Jesus. The ‘him’ was Jesus and it wouldnt make sense if it was anyone else. It is eaxctly the same and John the baptist was. Also 2 Peter 1:17 where Peter explicitly declares that he heard the Father about the Son that he was pleased

            Answer 1: Of course he knew who he was but the Father was showing his approval. Also see my last paragraph
            Answer 2. God the Father is not speaking to himself but speaking to God the Son hence why I say they are distinct. Again, see my last paragraph for proof

          • jesusblogger / Feb 11 2010 1:07 am

            Alan, would be good to get to meet and speak face-to-face and sit and go through the scriptures together, are you UK based or in the USA?

          • Alan Higgins / Feb 10 2010 1:58 pm

            I forgot to ask , when the Holy Spirit descended, where was Jesus?

          • jesusblogger / Feb 10 2010 2:15 pm

            The bible plainly states that Jesus (God in Flesh) was standing in the water. But is God limited to just the physical body of Jesus? No. This is why in John 3:17 Jesus says He is both on earth and in Heaven at the same time. What do you think of that scripture?

        • Glen / Feb 9 2010 11:27 pm

          Greetings Alan;

          First a disclaimer: no worldly man has all the answers.
          the Bible when taken out of context can be used to support any argument.
          my knowledge comes from many resources and the Bible.

          God is and always shall be God. I see Him with my eyes closed and I hear Him above all things. I have seen pictures of God in the flesh named Jesus. I feel the Holy Spirit when I pray and when I am alone.

          If I were to go back in a time-machine 2000+ years, I would expect to see this Jesus in the upper room in the flesh and know He was God. I would know because I would see God in His face and hear God in my head. Jesus says; “If you have seen me you have seen God.” (John 14:9).

          No one has seen God; “No one has seen the Father except the one who is from God; only he has seen the Father.” (John 6:46).

          The Holy Spirit is the spirit of God and Jesus. The Holy Spirit is… well spirit! You would not expect to see it in the flesh.

          I suppose you could have been with Jesus while watching the burning bush and could have even seen the tongues of fire dance over the saints. Maybe that’s one way to put.

          Another note before I exit, Jesus is what ties it all together; “For through him we both have access to the Father by one Spirit.” (Ephesians 2:18)

          Glen
          “Lov’n the Lord & Liv’n the Life…”

  5. Alan Higgins / Feb 2 2010 7:37 pm

    I have to agree with Michael looking at his website. Looking at some of the questions and answers above shows a total misunderstanding of trinitarian doctrine.

    1. Is the word trinity in the Bible? No.

    For example, christology is not in the bible but that doesnt mean that it cannot be found in the bible

    2. Does the Bible say that there are three persons in the Godhead? No.

    Even though it doesnt say it explicitly, all you have to do is read the whole bible and it is clear that Father, Son and Holy Spirit are distinct so it is very implicit in the bible

    And that is just the first two questions.

    See http://realchristianity.wordpress.com/2007/12/04/is-jesus-god/

    • jesusblogger / Feb 5 2010 7:31 pm

      But you agree Trinity is not in the bible and it doesn’t say God is Three Persons. Amazing such a core doctrine got missed by the Apostles – and developed over time.

      • Alan Higgins / Feb 6 2010 11:25 am

        As stated before, just because a word is not in the bible does not mean that the doctrine is not in the bible. The word rapture is not in the bible but the doctrine is

        • jesusblogger / Feb 8 2010 8:14 pm

          Alan, you are right in saying just because a word is not in the bible it doesn’t mean the doctrine the word describes is not e.g the word ‘monotheism’ isn’t in the bible.

          The problem with Trinity is that the word and the entire vocabulary used is not in the Bible (Trinity, Persons, Co-Equal. Co-Eternal, ‘Eternal Son’, ‘God the Son’, Three Loving Spirits, Same Substance etc). Can you describe the Trinity without using any of these words and only using Bible words?

          The word “monotheism” isn’t in the bible but Deuteronomy 6:4 clearly explains: “The LORD our God is One”, so without using the word monothiesm the doctrine is clear and explicitly stated.

          The trinity is an implied doctrine which scholars have debated and disagreed on since 325ad when it was adopted as the position of the Church under the unbaptised Roman Emperor Constantine.

          • Alan Higgins / Feb 10 2010 1:51 pm

            Why do you keep going on about using bible words? Please see my other comments

          • jesusblogger / Feb 10 2010 2:03 pm

            Hi Alan,

            I go on about Bible language as a doctrine should be able to be found in the Bible without extra-biblical language. Otherwise, such a doctrine is extra-biblical. For example, the word “rapture” is not in the Bible – but the rapture can be described based on the scripture saying “the Lord Himself shall descend from Heaven with a shout, the dead in Christ shall rise first and we which are alive and remain shall be caught up to meet him in the air”. This describes rapture very clearly without the need for the word “rapture”. Your description of the Trinity still needed extra biblical words such as “persons” etc to stand. Can it not stand on the scriptural language alone?

          • Alan Higgins / Feb 10 2010 2:28 pm

            But I have already told you that you have to look at the WHOLE of scripture. Not everything can be tied down to one verse

  6. Alan Higgins / Feb 9 2010 11:33 am

    I’ve mentioned that Trinitarian doctrine is not derived from one verse but from looking at the WHOLE of scripture. If youy want bible verses. Take a look at http://www.carm.org/trinity and http://www.carm.org/what-trinity

    • jesusblogger / Feb 10 2010 12:19 am

      Alan, can you explain the Trinity in Biblical words yourself to me?

  7. Alan Higgins / Feb 10 2010 1:54 pm

    I will concede that the analogies were not the best. For example you are right about past, present and future not being able to exist at the same time. The point I was trying to make is that it is all TIME but the past is not the present which is not the future. They are different. Lets stick with the jesus baptism comments as that for me is a classic example of their distinctions

  8. Alan Higgins / Feb 10 2010 2:30 pm

    So going on your logic, it reads “For Jesus did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.”

    It means “For God (the Father) did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

  9. Alan Higgins / Feb 11 2010 8:39 am

    I am based in the UK . Do you have Skype?

    • jesusblogger / Feb 11 2010 9:41 am

      Hi Alan,

      I’ll email you a little later.

      Have a blessed day,

      JB.

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